DID JESUS PRE-EXIST BEFORE HIS BIRTH ON EARTH? by Bro. Duane Cartujano

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First, it is clear in John 17:5 what Jesus told the FATHER. Jesus said “I had in your presence before the world existed.” This proves Jesus already existed before the world existed. Logos was with the Father.

Second, we can read in 1 Peter 1:11 that the phrase, “the Spirit of Christ within them”. "inquiring about the person or time that the Spirit of Christ within them indicated when it testified in advance to the sufferings destined for Christ and the subsequent glory."(1 Peter 1:11)

According to a commentary book of a textual scholar in page 386:

“Peter spoke of the Spirit of Christ indwelling the OT prophets who lived before the incarnation of the Son of God, when he became Jesus Christ of Nazareth. This means the Spirit of Christ existed before the incarnation; it also suggests that the Spirit of Christ is not bound by time---i.e., the Spirit of Christ is eternal.” (Page 386, A Commentary on the Manuscripts and text of the New Testament By Philip Comfort)

It is clear that in the generation of the prophets of the Old Testament, the presence of Christ guided them.

Third, It is very clear that John 8:58 is proof of the pre-existence of Christ.

Jesus said to them, “Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am.”(John 8:58)

It speaks his self-existence; he is the First and the Last, ever the same, Revelation 1:8. Thus he was not only before Abraham, but before all worlds. John 8:58 contradicts Abraham, who "came into being" (genesthai, translated "was" in the NRSV), with Jesus, who purely is (which Jesus states in the first person, "I am," ego eimi). The statement brings to mind as classic pronouncement of the eternal being of God in the Old Testament: "Before the mountains came into being [genethenai, infinitive aorist passive of ginomai] and the earth and the world were formed, even from age to age, you are [su ei, the second-person equivalent of ego eimi]" (Psalms 90:2 [89:2 in Septuagint] ).

The Greek sentence here shows the same grammatical structure as John 8:58 and uses the same verbs to point out the same contradiction between what is created and mortal and the uncreated and eternal one.

In the Book of New Testament Scholar, Murray J. Harris, John (Exegetical Guide to the Greek New Testament):

58 Ἀμὴν κτλ. 1: 51. Πρίν + acc. and infin., “before.” Γενέσθαι (aor. mid. infin. of γίνομαι) stands in sharp contrast with εἶναι: “Before Abraham came into existence/ was born, I AM.” A similar construction is found in Ps 89: 2, πρὸ τοῦ ὄρη γενηθῆναι . . . σὺ εἶ, “before the mountains came into existence, you exist.” Heb. ’ani hu’, “I existence (am) he” ( = Ἐγώ εἰμι in the LXX) was Yahweh’s self-designation (Isa 43: 10; 46: 4; 48: 12). The timeless εἰμί points to the absolute, independent, and eternal existence of Jesus; it places Jesus “in God’s existence beyond time, in his eternal present” (Schnackenburg 2: 223; he believes Exod 3: 14 [LXX], Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν, forms the basis of Jesus’ claim [2: 224, 494 n. 144]). Barrett spells out the implications of εἰμί this way: “I eternally was, as now I am, and ever continue to be” (352).

Fourth, If Christ is the power and wisdom of God and Christ did not exist during that time, it will show that God has no power and wisdom.

It is very clear Christ is the power and wisdom of God.

"but to those who are the called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God."(1 Corinthians 1:24)

The belief of those who do not agree with the pre-existence of Jesus is illogical. Aside from this, we understand the verse proves Jesus is not just a man. Why? If He is the power and wisdom of God and he is just a man, why will God get wisdom from Him? Does this mean man is more intelligent than God? And, if he is the power of God and He is just a man, why will God get power from Him? Is man more powerful than God? 

Wisdom cannot be separated from the one who owns Wisdom. For example, if you have wisdom, can you separate this wisdom from you? The answer is NO.